No you are not - - here is a screen shot of the situation
Line 1: Invoice 1,455.90 there is a 2% discount offered - 27.73 shown ---- Net Amount Paid - ZERO
Line 2: Invoice 2,139.90 there is a 2% discount offered - 40.76 shown ---- Net Amount Paid - 1,387.41
Line 3: Invoice 1,078.05 there is a 2% discount offered - 20.53 shown ---- Net Amount Paid - 1,057.52
Line 4 and 5 are the Credit notes that are applied AUTOMATICALLY by the system and so Line 1 gets the first 1,455.00 ( less 27.72 ) and line two get the remaining credit.
Line 6 and 7 show Invoices with 2% discount, no Credit remaining to apply, and a completely understandable Net Amount Paid.
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So we all ask, whats the bid deal, this is how we have looked at the cheque ( check ) remittance for years and not until this one have a bothered to question the common sense of the document. For 20 years I have simply agreed that when you apply the credit to the invoice it has to be shown somewhere and the remittance was the place. But this client has made me challenge that thinking. NO WHERE ON THIS DOCUMENT do I know that this is what happened.
The client took the time and effort to screen shoot the vendor detail and send it along so they would see better what happened. That was still not enough.
The client did the math for the vendor as a way of explaining how the system works.
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Question:
Am I nuts to work myself up over this? Does anyone else struggle with the problem?
If there is a better way to show the Payables Check without great amount of cost, please let me know as soon as possible.